toombaru - 20 September 2012 01:32 PM
Ok….Let’s give benefit of the doubt.
Suppose that maybe the letter refers to the real Jesus of the New Testament.
I don’t believe the Jesus of the Bible existed. For someone who claims to be the son of God he didn’t leave behind any evidence from primary sources. The earliest mention of Jesus Christ is by Paul, and Paul himself doesn’t say he met Jesus in the flesh. The Jews and Romans were very literate people who kept good records, and Jesus doesn’t show up in any of their records. Yeah, the Son of God doesn’t show up in the records of the people who believed in God nor the people who ruled the place, but you just have to take the Christians’ written word for it he existed.
Oh, and Paul wrote his letters in Greek, not Hebrew, not Latin. Sure, Greek was something of a lingua franca but if Paul was trying to give his story credence by writing in the language of the erudite (much like Joseph Smith writing the Book of Mormon in 17th century English) then why that one if he’s trying to convert the illiterate locals?
The whole Jesus story stinks.